Good discussion today from Dave at macroblog and pgl at Angry Bear. For full effect read Angry Bear first, then macroblog with the comments from pgl (and me).
The current Social Security surplus makes the General Fund deficit look smaller. We have been, in other words, raiding the "trust fund." In that narrowly defined sense, Social Security is pay-as-you-go. In that sense, the system will go bankrupt in a few decades due simply to the collision of demographics and economics. In that sense, payroll taxes will only pay 73% of benefits in 2042 according to the statement I recently received in the mail.
All of this assumes that the rules don't change. Of course, we all know that the rules will change somehow, sometime between now and 2042, one way or another.
Dave asks:
First, does anyone seriously believe that "repudiating" the accumulated social security surpluses by altering benefit rules would be viewed as the same sort of thing as refusing to pay off debt held by foreign governments or the public? Do you believe, in fact,that it would create even a perceptible ripple in the deep waters of our financial markets? If you answer "no," then aren't you admitting that the the world perceives the trust fund as little more than an accounting gimmick?
My answer is "No," and I therefore admit it's an accounting gimmick. (If you've been following my posts, you knew that!) Foreign governments and the public in their role as bondholders wouldn't bat an eye. The public in their role as workers and retired persons would scream political bloody murder. And I think you can differentiate those roles. Politicians know this too, and it's what will drive them to do something, sometime, to preserve the benefits.
Fully funded politically and morally, not economically. Not in the narrow sense, at least.
Now for the punchline. Does it matter that the funding of our benefits is based on political trust? Probably not so much. The "Trust Fund" is a "useful fiction" to perpetuate the idea that there will be something for you. It's up to presidents and congresses between now and 2042 to work out the details, but there will be something. The voters understand that a lot better than they understand the economic distinction between fully funded and pay-as-you-go. They may not articulate it, but I think they understand it at some level.
In my comments at macroblog, I mentioned Ricardian equivalence, a gauntlet that, once thrown down, pgl (of Angry Bear) quickly picked up.
The Ricardian Equivalence point of William is intriguing. RE makes the following implicit assumption. There is no game of chicken ala Sargent & Wallace's devastating writing about Reagan fiscal policy where all agents have a good idea of how the budget will be eventually balanced. But suppose we have this Reagan-Greenspan 3-card monte (to take AB's excellent post on this). Workers were led to believe they were prefunding their SS retirements and not paying higher employment taxes. The Kudlow and Luskin investor class, however, realized they were getting permanent tax cuts to be later paid for by robbing the lockbox. Workers do not curtail consumption while the investor class increases its consumption. And ole - consumption goes up which seems to contradict the simple version of RE. Were workers irrational to think Reagan was telling the truth? I guess you believe so.
Wow. This is just asking for a nice theoretical model. Maybe later. Anyway, he's got it about right. Insofar as payroll taxes affect the worker class and investor class differently, pure RE will not hold, at least with regard to the savings decisions of the workers and investors.
My allusion to RE was actually a little more nuanced however, and goes back to the idea of the trust fund as a useful fiction. (Again, read my comments at macroblog.) Suppose the government raids the trust fund. Where does that money come from? Who does it belong to? The question is key to whether it's a pay-as-you-go or fully funded system.
If they are required to honor the social contract (defined benefit structure), I don't see that it matters. With payroll taxes that are less than perfectly correlated with the defined benefits, I don't see how it matters who you say you are borrowing from. This seems a lot like a form of RE, though it is a little different from the usual notion. It's a generational sort of RE--which generation are you taxing to provide defined benefits for a given generation? Are you taxing the present generation of workers or did you tax the previous generation of workers years ago and borrow from them to finance last period's spending?
The trust fund is a social contract. In that sense, it's fully funded politically and morally. But I see nothing in the accounting structure of Social Security to suggest that it is fully funded in the strict economic sense.
But I think that a form of Ricardian equivalence may in fact blur the line between the two concepts due to the defined benefit structure and the social contract. I realize that I've laid out these ideas rather crudely in this post, but I think that there is something there worth chewing on as the debate continues.
After all, there's got to be some explanation for the fact that there is disagreement over this. If the two types of systems are hard to tell apart in modern political application, that might explain it. I will continue to refine this idea, and I welcome comments.